2013년 11월 29일 금요일

CheckPoint 자격증 156-315.71 시험문제와 답

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시험 번호/코드: 156-315.71
시험 이름: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71)
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Q&A: 480 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

CheckPoint최신덤프   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.2 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

CheckPoint dumps   156-315.71   156-315.71자료   156-315.71

NO.3 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

CheckPoint dumps   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71자료   156-315.71

NO.5 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-315.71   156-315.71기출문제   156-315.71자격증   156-315.71 dump

NO.6 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

CheckPoint자료   156-315.71 dumps   156-315.71 pdf   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.7 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

CheckPoint덤프   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.8 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

CheckPoint덤프   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.9 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.71덤프   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.10 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

CheckPoint기출문제   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.11 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.71 pdf   156-315.71

NO.12 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315.71   156-315.71 dump   156-315.71기출문제   156-315.71기출문제

NO.13 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

CheckPoint인증   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71덤프

NO.14 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

CheckPoint인증   156-315.71   156-315.71자격증   156-315.71인증   156-315.71 dumps

NO.15 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315.71자격증   156-315.71최신덤프   156-315.71시험문제

NO.16 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

CheckPoint자격증   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.17 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

CheckPoint인증   156-315.71   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.18 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.71   156-315.71자격증   156-315.71   156-315.71

NO.19 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: 156-915.70
시험 이름: CheckPoint (CCSE-R70-Upgrade)
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100% 환불보장약속
100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 243 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 Which of the following is not accelerated by SecureXL?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions Included with Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event
Analysis R7P?
A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
B. As a base for starling and building exclusions
C. To allow Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event Analysis R70 to function property with all other R70 release
devices
D. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition, a scenario that may occur in
deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R70
Answer: D

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NO.3 With Eventia Analyzer, what is the analyzer Server's function?
A. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.
B. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
C. Displays received threats and tune the Events Policy.
D. Assign seventy levels to events.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70자격증

NO.4 You are Connectra administrator. Your users complain that their outlook Web Access is running
extremely slowly, and their overall browsing experience configures to worsen. You suspect it could be a
logging problem. Which of the following log file does CheckPoint recommended you purge?
A. Httpd*.log
B. Event_ws.log
C. Mod_ws_owd.log
D. Alert_owd.log
Answer: A

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NO.5 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the benefit to running Eventia Analyzer in Learning Mode?
A. There is no Eventia Analyzer Learning Mode
B. To run Eventia Analyzer, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purpose
C. To run Eventia Analyzer with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D

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NO.7 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing
Unicast
B. Load Balancing
Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70 dump   156-915.70 pdf   156-915.70

NO.8 Which of the following is a supported deployment for Connectra?
A. IPSO 4.9 build 88
B. VMWare ESX
C. Solaris 10
D. Windows server 2007
Answer: B

CheckPoint pdf   156-915.70   156-915.70덤프   156-915.70

NO.9 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces- You also want the traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > communities
B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Internal_clear > All_GwTogw
D. Internal_clear > All_communities
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70 dumps   156-915.70   156-915.70 dump

NO.10 Which type of routing relies on a VPN Tunnel interface (VT1) to route traffic?
A. Subnet-based VPN
B. Route-based VPN
C. Host-based VPN
D. Domain-based VPN
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is a task of the IPS Event Analysis Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Forward what is known as an event to the IPS Event Analysis server
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: D

CheckPoint인증   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.12 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915.70자료   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.13 The We-Make-Widgets
company has purchased twenty UTM-1 Edge appliances for their remote
offices. Kim decides the best way to manage those appliances is to use SmartProvisioning and create a
profile they can all use. List the order of steps Kim would go through to add the Dallas Edge appliance to
the remote Office profile Using the output below.
A. 6, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 4, 1, 3, 6, 5, 2
C. 6, 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915.70자료   156-915.70   156-915.70시험문제

NO.14 When checkpoint product is used to create and save changes to a Log consolidation policy?
A. Security Management Server
B. Eventia Reporter Client
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. Eventia Reporter Server
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70 dump   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.15 To change the default port of the Management Portal.
A. Edit the masters, conf file on the Portal server
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin. conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initialize SIC.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.16 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70자격증   156-915.70인증   156-915.70

NO.17 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70덤프   156-915.70자격증

NO.18 Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.
B. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
C. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
D. VTIs are only supported on Secure Platform.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915.70 pdf   156-915.70

NO.19 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command
will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70시험문제   156-915.70

NO.20 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David
use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915.70덤프   156-915.70

NO.21 John is the MultiCorp Security Administrator. If he suggests a change in the firewall configuration, he
must submit his proposal to David, a Security manager. One day David is out of the office and john
submits his proposal to peter, surprisingly, Peter is not able to approve the proposal the system does not
permit him to do so (See figure below)
Next day David is back and he can carry out this operation.
Both the David and peter have accounts as administrators in the Security management Server and both
have the read/write all permission. What is the reason for the difference? Choose the best answer.
A. There were some hardware/software issues at the Security management Server on the first day.
B. Peter was not log on to system for a long time.
C. The attribute manage administrators was not assigned to peter.
D. The specific SmartWorkflow read/write permissions were assigned to David only.
Answer: D

CheckPoint기출문제   156-915.70덤프   156-915.70   156-915.70시험문제   156-915.70

NO.22 Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic kill Bits protection is sent to inactive. She wants to set the
micro soft Visual Basic Kill bits protection and all other low performance impact protection to prevent. She
asks her manager for approval and he stated she can turn these on. But he Laura to make sure no high
performance impact protections are limited on while changing this setting.
Using the output below, how would Laura change the default-protection on performance impact
protections classified as low from inactive to prevent while still meeting her other criteria?
A. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with performance impact to
medium or above
B. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to
low or above
C. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to
medium or above
D. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with performance impact to
high or above
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.23 What is the maximum number of cores supported by CoreXL?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.24 Reporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all of the following
examples, EXCEPT
A. Possible worm/malware activity.
B. Tracking attempted port scans.
C. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.
D. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.25 Which Security Servers can perform authentication tasks, but CANNOT perform content security
tasks?
A. RLOGIN
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. HTTP
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-915.70최신덤프   156-915.70   156-915.70 dump

NO.26 Which of the following commands will stop acceleration on a Security Gateway running on Secure
Platform?
A. splat_accel off
B. fwacceX off
C. perf_pack off
D. fwaceel off
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70덤프   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70덤프

NO.27 Which specific R70 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Eventia Reporter
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915.70덤프   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.28 You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the match column does
not have the option to see the directional match. You see the following window. What must you enable to
see the Directional match?
A. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object's VPN tab
B. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced Window, m Global Properties
D. Directional_match (True) in the objects_5_0 file on Security management Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint자료   156-915.70시험문제   156-915.70기출문제   156-915.70

NO.29 You have selected the event port scan from internal network in Eventia Analyzer , to detect an event
when 30 ports have occurred when 60 seconds. You want to detect two ports scans from a host within 10
seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. You cannot set Eventia Analyzer to detect two port scans within 10 seconds of each other.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub event.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as an exception.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.70   156-915.70   156-915.70

NO.30 The London office just upgraded their DNS Gateway needs with the new settings. What would be the
best way for Henry to change the DNS settings for the London s Gateway?
A. Edit the Canada profile
B. Edit the gateways DNS settings from the edit gateway, then selecting the DNS tab
C. DNS settings for that gateway cannot be changed
D. Edit the Europe profile
Answer: B

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시험 이름: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert R70)
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Q&A: 182 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 All of the following can be configured on a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, EXCEPT:
A. Analyze logs
B. Firewall Module
C. Firewall Manager
D. Customer Logging Module
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-815.71 pdf   156-815.71인증

NO.2 Communication between the MDG and the MDS is secured in what way?
A. IKE encryption using shared secret
B. Configurable third-party authentication mechanism
C. Username and Password authentication
D. SSL initiated using SIC certificate exchange
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71기출문제   156-815.71   156-815.71덤프   156-815.71자격증

NO.3 On which SecurePlatform kernel version is Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R71 built?
A. 2.4.18
B. 2.6.18-92
C. 2.4.21-21
D. RHEL 3
Answer: B

CheckPoint시험문제   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71시험문제   156-815.71

NO.4 A Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS is supported on which of the following platforms?
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71자격증   156-815.71

NO.5 Which operating system listed supports running a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, but
has a limitation in the number of virtual IP addresses which can be assigned to a given interface?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. SecurePlatform
D. Solaris
Answer: D

CheckPoint dump   156-815.71자격증   156-815.71   156-815.71자격증   156-815.71

NO.6 What is the name for the interface connecting CMA Virtual IPs?
A. Leading VIP Interface
B. VIP Lounge Interface
C. Main External Interface
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-815.71덤프   156-815.71 pdf   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71최신덤프

NO.7 Which of the following ports is used by CPMI to communicate between Multi-Domain Management
with Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 264
C. TCP port 18191
D. TCP port 18190
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71 dump   156-815.71

NO.8 What directory would you find all the configuration files related to the CMA "Customer_1"?
A. /opt/CPmds-R71/Customer_1/
B. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/conf
C. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/fw1/conf
D. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/
Answer: A

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NO.9 What information can NOT be obtained from the mdsstat output?
A. Hostname of the MDS
B. Up / down status
C. IP address of the CMA
D. PID number FWD
Answer: A

CheckPoint시험문제   156-815.71   156-815.71자료   156-815.71

NO.10 Which of the following systems would meet the MINIMUM requirements for an MDS.?
A. SecurePlatform, 10 GB hard drive
B. SecurePlatform, 2-GB hard drive, 8 MB memory
C. Solaris 9, 4-GB hard drive, 1 GB memory
D. Linux RHEL 5, 2.4 kernel, 4-GB hard drive, 4-GB memory
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71 pdf   156-815.71기출문제   156-815.71 dump   156-815.71

NO.11 Upon boot, where is the script for the automatic start of the MDS processes located?
A. /etc/init.d
B. /var/init.d
C. etc/init.D
D. var/etc/init.d
Answer: A

CheckPoint시험문제   156-815.71덤프   156-815.71

NO.12 Which of the following statements is TRUE about Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1?
A. Provider-1 encrypts all traffic among modules - so no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1
system.
B. The MDS Manager has a built-in firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers.
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system is difficult to implement, and is not
recommended.
D. A separately managed Security Gateway is recommended to protect the Provider-1 environment.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71기출문제   156-815.71최신덤프   156-815.71

NO.13 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. $FWDIR/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
B. /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/log/mds.elg and /var/opt/CPmds-R71/log/mds.log
C. /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
D. $CPDIR/log/debug.elg
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-815.71자격증   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71최신덤프   156-815.71

NO.14 Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 instead of
Management Servers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D

CheckPoint덤프   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71 dump   156-815.71

NO.15 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. fwm.log
B. mds.error
C. mds.log
D. fwm.elg
Answer: C

CheckPoint자격증   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71 dump

NO.16 What directory is shared between MDS and CMA?
A. $FWDIR/log
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $FWDIR/bin
D. $FWDIR/conf
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71덤프

NO.17 When a NOC firewall separates the Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS machine and the
MDG (as shown below), what must be done to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?
Modify the NOC Security Gateway Rule Base to allow:
A. RPC traffic for the MDG.
B. CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
C. UDP traffic for the MDG.
D. CPMI traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.71자격증   156-815.71자격증   156-815.71 pdf

NO.18 When does a SIC certificate expire for CMA/MDS?
A. After 3 years
B. After 5 years
C. The interval is configurable.
D. After 1 year
Answer: B

CheckPoint pdf   156-815.71   156-815.71기출문제   156-815.71최신덤프   156-815.71   156-815.71

NO.19 Where do the Global Policy database files reside in an MDS environment?
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $MDSDIR/database
C. $MDSDIR/conf/mdsdb
D. $MDSDIR/conf
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.71 dumps   156-815.71   156-815.71 dumps   156-815.71최신덤프

NO.20 Which one of the processes runs on the MDS Level?
A. fwm mds
B. fgd
C. iked
D. vpnd
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71

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시험 번호/코드: 156-915-65
시험 이름: CheckPoint (Accelerated CCSE NGX R65 )
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Q&A: 204 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 When a user selects to allow Hotspot, SecureClient modifies the Desktop Security Policy and/or Hub
Mode routing to enable Hotspot registration. Which of the following is NOT true concerning this
modification?
A.The modification is restricted by time.
B.The number of IP addresses accessed is not restricted.
C.IP addresses accessed during registration are recorded.
D.Ports accessed during registration are recorded.
Answer:B

CheckPoint인증   156-915-65시험문제   156-915-65최신덤프   156-915-65

NO.2 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.User Name, Password, SmartCenter Server IP
B.User Name, SmartCenter Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
C.Password, SmartCenter Server IP, LDAP Server
D.Password, SmartCenter Server IP
Answer:B

CheckPoint   156-915-65기출문제   156-915-65

NO.3 When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues
need to be considered? (1) Each member must have a unique source IP address (2) Every interface on
each member requires a unique IP address (3) All VTIs going to the same remote peer must have the
same name. (4) Custer IP addresses are required.
A.2 & 3
B.1, 3, & 4
C.1, 2, 3 & 4
D.1, 2, and 4
Answer:C

CheckPoint   156-915-65   156-915-65   156-915-65   156-915-65

NO.4 Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the name and timestamp of the
Security Policy currently installed on a firewall module?
A.fw ver
B.fw stat
C.fw ctl pstat
D.cpstat fwd
Answer:B

CheckPoint덤프   156-915-65   156-915-65 dump   156-915-65

NO.5 When configuring VPN High Availability (HA) with MEP, which of the following is correct?
A.The decision on which MEP Security Gateway to use is made on the remote gateway's side (non-MEP
side).
B.MEP Gateways must be managed by the same SmartCenter Server.
C.MEP VPN Gateways cannot be geographically separated machines.
D.If one Gateway fails, the synchronized connection fails over to another Gateway and the connection
continues.
Answer:A

CheckPoint dumps   156-915-65 pdf   156-915-65   156-915-65최신덤프   156-915-65   156-915-65

NO.6 How do you recover communications between your SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway if you
"lock" yourself out via a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A.cpstop
B.fw unload policy
C.fw delete all.all
D.fw unloadlocal
Answer:D

CheckPoint자료   156-915-65 dump   156-915-65 dump

NO.7 Match each of the following commands to their correct function. Each command only has one function
listed.
A.C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5
B.C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2
C.C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D.C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
Answer:A

CheckPoint시험문제   156-915-65자격증   156-915-65자료

NO.8 Where do you enable popup alerts for SmartDefense settings that have detected suspicious activity?
A.In SmartView Monitor, select Tools > Alerts
B.In SmartView Tracker, select Tools > Custom Commands
C.In SmartDashboard, edit the Gateway object, select SmartDefense > Alerts
D.In SmartDashboard, select Global Properties > Log and Alert > Alert Commands
Answer:A

CheckPoint   156-915-65   156-915-65자료

NO.9 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A.Eventia Reporter Client
B.SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
C.SmartCenter Server
D.Eventia Reporter Server
Answer:B

CheckPoint   156-915-65최신덤프   156-915-65   156-915-65최신덤프

NO.10 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be
current?
A.None, all versions require a license upgrade
B.VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later
C.VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later
D.VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later
Answer:C

CheckPoint   156-915-65   156-915-65인증   156-915-65

NO.11 You are reviewing the Security Administrator activity for a bank and comparing it to the change log.
How do you view Security Administrator activity?
A.SmartView Tracker in Active Mode
B.SmartView Tracker in Audit Mode
C.SmartView Tracker cannot display Security Administrator activity; instead, view the system logs on the
SmartCenter Server's Operating System.
D.SmartView Tracker in Log Mode
Answer:B

CheckPoint   156-915-65   156-915-65   156-915-65

NO.12 Your online bookstore has customers connecting to a variety of Web servers to place or change orders,
and check order status. You ran penetration tests through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web
servers were protected from a recent series of cross-site scripting attacks. The penetration testing
indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable. You have checked every box in the Web Intelligence tab,
and installed the Security Policy. What else might you do to reduce the vulnerability?
A.Configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.
B.Check the "Products > Web Server" box on the host node objects representing your Web servers.
C.Configure resource objects as Web servers, and use them in the rules allowing HTTP traffic to the Web
servers.
D.The penetration software you are using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
Answer:C

CheckPoint   156-915-65덤프   156-915-65덤프

NO.13 Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express reports
in Eventia Reporter?
A.In SmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the VPN-1 Security Gateway object
B.In Eventia Reporter, under Express > Network Activity
C.In Eventia Reporter, under Standard > Custom
D.In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters
Answer:A

CheckPoint덤프   156-915-65   156-915-65   156-915-65최신덤프

NO.14 A security audit has determined that your unpatched web application server is revealing the fact that it
accesses a SQL server. You believe that you have enabled the proper SmartDefense setting but would
like to verify this fact using SmartView Tracker. Which of the following entries confirms the proper blocking
of this leaked information to an attacker?
A."Fingerprint Scrambling: Changed [SQL] to [Perl]"
B."HTTP response spoofing: remove signature [SQL Server]"
C."Concealed HTTP response [SQL Server]. (Error Code WSE0160003)"
D."ASCII Only Response Header detected: SQL"
Answer:C

CheckPoint자격증   156-915-65 pdf   156-915-65인증   156-915-65   156-915-65최신덤프   156-915-65

NO.15 In ClusterXL, which of the following are defined by default as critical devices?
A.Security Policy status
B.fw.d
C.protect.exe
D.PROT_SRV.EXE
Answer:A

CheckPoint   156-915-65 dumps   156-915-65   156-915-65 pdf

NO.16 Which of the following would NOT be a reason for beginning with a fresh installation of VPN-1 NGX R65,
instead of upgrading a previous version to VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.You see a more logical way to organize your rules and objects.
B.You want to keep your Check Point configuration.
C.Your Security Policy includes rules and objects whose purpose you do not know.
D.Objects and rules' naming conventions have changed over time.
Answer:B

CheckPoint dumps   156-915-65   156-915-65   156-915-65   156-915-65시험문제

NO.17 Which operating system is not supported by SecureClient?
A.MacOS X
B.Windows XP SP2
C.Windows 2003 Professional
D.IPSO 3.9
Answer:D

CheckPoint   156-915-65   156-915-65시험문제   156-915-65

NO.18 Match the remote-access VPN Connection mode features with their descriptions:
A.A 3, B 4, C 2, D 1
B.A 2, B 3, C 4, D 1
C.A 2, B 4, C 3, D 1
D.A 1, B 3, C 4, D 2
Answer:B

CheckPoint   156-915-65   156-915-65덤프   156-915-65인증

NO.19 Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have
created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Why?
A.Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.
B.You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
C.You checked the "cache password on desktop" option in Global Properties.
D.Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
Answer:B

CheckPoint최신덤프   156-915-65   156-915-65최신덤프   156-915-65   156-915-65최신덤프

NO.20 How do you block some seldom-used FTP commands, such as CWD, and FIND from passing through
the Gateway?
A.Use FTP Security Server settings in SmartDefense.
B.Add the restricted commands to the aftpd.conf file in the SmartCenter Server.
C.Configure the restricted FTP commands in the Security Servers screen of the Global properties.
D.Enable FTP Bounce checking in SmartDefense.
Answer:A

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시험 번호/코드: 156-315.13
시험 이름: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
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Q&A: 639 문항
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NO.1 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter Client
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. SmartEvent Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-315.13시험문제   156-315.13

NO.2 VPN-1 NGX includes a resource mechanism for working with the Common Internet File
System (CIFS). However, this service only provides a limited level of actions for CIFS security. Which
of the following services is NOT provided by a CIFS resource?
A. Log access shares
B. Block Remote Registry Access
C. Log mapped shares
D. Allow MS print shares
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315.13자료   156-315.13   156-315.13시험문제   156-315.13

NO.3 You have an internal FTP server, and you allow downloading, but not uploading. Assume
Network Address Translation is set up correctly, and you want to add an inbound rule with:
Source: Any Destination: FTP server Service: FTP resources object.
How do you configure the FTP resource object and the action column in the rule to achieve this goal?
A. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties, and use this method in the rule,
with action accept.
B. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
drop.
C. Enable both "Put" and "Get" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use them in the rule,
with action drop.
D. Disable "Get" and "Put" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with
action accept.
E. Enable only the "Put" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
accept.
Answer: A

CheckPoint dumps   156-315.13 dumps   156-315.13기출문제   156-315.13인증

NO.4 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.13자료   156-315.13   156-315.13

NO.5 Which of the following access options would you NOT use when configuring Captive Portal?
A. Through the Firewall policy
B. From the Internet
C. Through all interfaces
D. Through internal interfaces
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.13   156-315.13덤프   156-315.13   156-315.13   156-315.13 pdf

NO.6 You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use
four machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 Intel 3Com, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 other manufacturers, memory: 512 MB, Security
Gateway only, version: R76
Security Management Server: MS Windows 2003, NIC. Intel NIC (1), Security Gateway and primary
Security Management Server installed, version: R76
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Pro Server.
B. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.
C. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
D. No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster
members.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-315.13   156-315.13

NO.7 Which of the following statements accurately describes the migrate command?
A. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
C. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, migrate stores all object
databases and the conf directories for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway
D. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files, such as in
the directories /lib and /conf.
Answer: C

CheckPoint자료   156-315.13자료   156-315.13 dumps   156-315.13   156-315.13

NO.8 Based on the following information, which of the statements below is FALSE?
A DLP Rule Base has the following conditions: Data Type =Password Protected File Source=My
Organization Destination=Outside My Organization Protocol=Any Action=Ask User Exception: Data
Type=Any, Source=Research and Development (R&D) Destination=Pratner1.com Protocol=Any All
other rules are set to Detect. UserCheck is enabled and installed on all client machines.
A. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with a password protected PDF file as an attachment to
xyz@partner1 .com, he will be prompted by UserCheck.
B. When a user from Finance sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to. He will
be prompted by UserCheck.
C. Another rule is added: Source = R&D, Destination = partner1.com, Protocol = Any, Action = Inform.
When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to, he will be
prompted by UserCheck.
D. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to , he will
NOT be prompted by UserCheck.
Answer: B

CheckPoint dumps   156-315.13기출문제   156-315.13기출문제   156-315.13

NO.9 Public keys and digital certificates provide which of the following? Select three.
A. Non repudiation
B. Data integrity
C. Availability
D. Authentication
Answer: A,B,D

CheckPoint기출문제   156-315.13자료   156-315.13

NO.10 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323 protocols,
passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP Domain Gatekeeper do you
select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A

CheckPoint자격증   156-315.13   156-315.13

NO.11 What type of object may be explicitly defined as a MEP VPN?
A. Mesh VPN Community
B. Any VPN Community
C. Remote Access VPN Community
D. Star VPN Community
Answer: D

CheckPoint dump   156-315.13최신덤프   156-315.13   156-315.13 dump   156-315.13최신덤프

NO.12 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's?
A. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.
B. MEP VPN's are not restricted to the location of the gateways.
C. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the
first connection fail.
D. MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315.13자격증   156-315.13기출문제   156-315.13덤프

NO.13 When configuring an LDAP Group object, which option should you select if you want the
gateway to reference the groups defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes?
A. Only Group in Branch
B. Only Sub Tree
C. OU Auth and select Group Name
D. All Account-Unit's Users
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315.13자격증   156-315.13   156-315.13시험문제

NO.14 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's?
A. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the
first connection fail.
B. MEP Security Gateways can be managed by separate Management Servers.
C. MEP VPN's are restricted to the location of the gateways.
D. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.
Answer: B

CheckPoint dumps   156-315.13   156-315.13

NO.15 _______________ manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify
automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server.
A. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
B. SmartReporter
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartReporter Database
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: CAT-180
시험 이름: CA (CA Service Desk Manager r12 Professional Exam)
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NO.1 Which code calls a web form?
A. Resource ID
B. Resource name
C. Resource pointer
D. Resource reference
Answer: B

CA   CAT-180덤프   CAT-180자료

NO.2 When implementing an architecture that includes CA Service Desk rl2 with CA Workflow, which default
port assignments apply? (Choose two)
A. CA Workflow Tomcat Startup: 8090
B. CA Workflow Tomcat Shutdown: 8095
C. CA Service Desk Tomcat Startup: 5250
D. CA Service Desk Tomcat Shutdown: 9085
Answer: A,B

CA   CAT-180최신덤프   CAT-180기출문제   CAT-180최신덤프

NO.3 When you create configuration items (CIs) for notifications, you distinguish special object contacts from
normal ones by using the:
A. number (#) character
B. percent (%) character
C. ampersand (&) character
D. commercial AT (@) character
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: CAT-240
시험 이름: CA (CA Clarity PPM v12 Business Analyst Exam)
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NO.1 There are two fields on the Resource Profile that must be set appropriately to help ensure a resource
can enter time through the CA Clarity timesheets. What are the two fields?
A. Category and Active
B. Track Mode and Category
C. Track Mode and Open for Time Entry
D. Open for Time Entry and Employee Type
Answer: C

CA   CAT-240시험문제   CAT-240자격증   CAT-240   CAT-240최신덤프

NO.2 CA Clarity PPM and the supported scheduling tools enable you to plan detailed schedules by adjusting
variables that affect how work is scheduled. Which variable determines the distribution of work over a
period.?
A. Task Type
B. Start - Finish
C. Loading Pattern
D. Resource Max Load Percentage
Answer: C

CA pdf   CAT-240자격증   CAT-240   CAT-240인증   CAT-240

NO.3 What is a valid reason to use the Transaction Entry functionality?
A. Modify existing transactions
B. View the pro forma invoice for a customer
C. Enter additional transactions to the system that were not entered through timesheets
D. View the data from timesheets that have been posted through the Post to Financials job option
Answer: C

CA dump   CAT-240시험문제   CAT-240   CAT-240   CAT-240기출문제

NO.4 What are the three classifications of Chargeback rules? (Choose three)
A. Recovery rules
B. Overhead rules
C. Time-based rules
D. Standard Debit rules
E. Investment-specific Debit rules
Answer: B,D,E

CA   CAT-240   CAT-240덤프

NO.5 The Financial Status determines how transactions entered against a project are handled. If you set the
status to Hold, then:
A. The project is no longer open for financial processing.
B. Transactions can be fully processed within the system.
C. New transactions cannot accumulate and credit memos cannot be issued against a project.
D. New transactions cannot accumulate but existing transactions can be processed against the project.
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: CAT-260
시험 이름: CA (CA AppLogic r3 Professional Exam)
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NO.1 Which appliance is a port switch that is used most often to forward/separate administrative
traffic?
A. PS8
B. HALB
C. WEB5
D. INSSL
Answer: A

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NO.2 If you are using a Windows computer, how do you access a Virtual Dedicated Server (VDS) for
the
Linux operating system?
A. Remote Desktop
B. Login (graphic) option
C. Secure Shell (SSH) from the PuTTY tool
D. Cygwin bash using the following command: windows cmd.exe shell
Answer: C

CA   CAT-260 dump   CAT-260   CAT-260

NO.3 WS_API provides a web service interface to: (Choose two)
A. Existing business services on the grid.
B. The command-line interface (CLI)-based controller of the CA AppLogic grid.
C. One or multiple CA AppLogic grids, through a Representational State Transfer (REST)-based
service.
D. Large pools of virtualized infrastructure within each Virtual Data Center (VDC), which you can
programmatically control.
Answer: A

CA자료   CAT-260   CAT-260

NO.4 You have completed the build for a new application and have had it running for two days. You
decide to
add monitoring capabilities to your application. After dragging a MON appliance to the grid, you use
balloon connectors to connect the mon interface of all your appliances to the mon interface of the
MON
appliance. Then you click the Monitor button. However, the monitoring function does not work.
Before you
make a second attempt at running the monitoring function, what do you need to do?
A. Configure a Monitoring Policy.
B. Save and restart your application.
C. Save your application and do no more.
D. Reconstruct the application, because you cannot add a MON appliance after an application has
already been running.
Answer: B

CA   CAT-260   CAT-260인증

NO.5 CA AppLogic virtualizes access to
Which types of peripheral devices? (Choose two)
A. Serial ports
B. Tape drives
C. Block storage devices
D. Network interface cards (NICs)
Answer: C,D

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시험 번호/코드: CAT-340
시험 이름: CA (CA IdentityMinder r12.x Professional Exam)
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NO.1 In CA IdentityMinder r12.6, the basic access request feature:
A. is fully integrated with CA GovernanceMinder.
B. includes granular filtering and search capabilities.
C. enables bulk definition ofaccess request services objects.
D. can use workflow approval and email notification functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement about installing Connector Xpress is TRUE?
A. It can be installed on a dedicated computer.
B. It must be installed on the Report Server computer.
C. It must be installed on the Provisioning Server computer.
D. It must be installed on the JavaConnector Server (JCS) computer.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When you export CA IdentityMinder environment settings, you generate a ZIP file containing
which files? (Choose three)
A. alias_environment.xml
B. alias_environment_roles.xml
C. alias_environment_users.xml
D. alias_environment_settings.xml
E. alias_environment_mappings.xml
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which event context information object method returns the name of the person who
submitted the task that generated an event?
A. getOrgName()
B. getEventName()
C. getAdminName()
D. getPrimaryObjectName()
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which tasks does Config Xpress enable you to perform? (Choose three)
A. Map dynamic connectors to endpoints.
B. Move components between environments.
C. Publish a report of thesystem components to a PDF file.
D. Publish the XML configuration fora particular component.
E. Create complex business logic withoutthe need to develop custom code.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 During Exchange Agent configuration, which step do you perform?
A. Install an Exchange server remote agent on the Provisioning Server.
B. Configure the CAM and CAFT Service to be started by the system account.
C. Configure inbound mappings to map Exchange events to CA IdentityMinder tasks.
D. Configure CAFTHOST to recognize the C++ Connector Server (CCS) and the CA IdentityMinder
clients.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When you configure the Report Server, which guideline should you follow?
A. Always restart the environment after you configure reporting.
B. Set all systems involved in reportingto the same time zone and time.
C. To avoid port conflicts with JBoss, change the default port numbers in the CRConfig.xml file.
D. Configure the connection with the Provisioning Server before you configure the connection with
the Snapshot Database.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You need to import a large number of managed users to the CA Identity Minder User Store
simultaneously.Having explored the various options, the Bulk Loader method seems the best option.
However, which limitation do you need to be aware of before you begin?
A. It may use large amounts of memory.
B. It cannotbe mapped to a workflow process.
C. It does not support the execution of identity policies.
D. It bypasses audit and security mechanisms provided by the Task Server.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 0B0-106
시험 이름: BEA (BEA SOA Foundations Exam)
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NO.1 What is the purpose of a Reference Architecture?
A. To provide a frame of reference for discussion of enterprise architecture concerns.
B. To provide linkage between the architecture of a given enterprise and certain of the enterprise
architecture frameworks, such as TOGAF or
Zachmann.
C. To define the reference material from which answers to questions about enterprise architecture may be
drawn.
D. To provide a comprehensive enterprise architecture that constitutes the correct, best practices-based
approach to constructing a modern
enterprise.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following provides the best definition of SOA?
A. SOA is a software engineering paradigm that prescribes the creation of loosely coupled interfaces
between the consumers of functionality and
the applications that represent that functionality.
B. SOA is a collection of technologies like enterprise service bus and Web Service management that
facilitate the delivery of enterprise
functionality as a set of services.
C. SOA is an IT strategy that organizes the discrete functions contained in enterprise applications into
interoperable, standards-based services
that can be combined and reused quickly to meet business needs.
D. SOA is a collection of standards, best practices, architectural models, and software development
methodologies, principally based on Web
Services, which may be incorporated into enterprise software engineering to provide information
technology to an enterprise in a
standards-based way.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How is SOA different from previous approaches involving the sharing of information assets? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. SOA is an enterprise architecture approach that does not specify a given technology or vendor
solution.
B. SOA embodies the concept of run-time, rather than development-time or code level reuse.
C. SOA provides detailed specifications meant to provide a maximum of assurance of interoperability
among supporting technologies and vendor
solutions.
D. The basis of SOA in XML and other standards provides true platform agnosticism.
Answer: ABD

BEA시험문제   0B0-106기출문제   0B0-106   0B0-106

NO.4 When is SOA NOT an appropriate strategy? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When the applications in a given enterprise are necessarily stand-alone, and thus would not benefit
from a shared services approach.
B. When the political boundaries among lines of business and their related IT functions are
insurmountable, making sharing of functionality as
services impossible.
C. When the information systems in a given enterprise are homogeneous from a technological
perspective and thus the sharing of functionality
among them is essentially built into their construction.
D. When enterprise business processes are widely distributed across the information systems for
separate lines of business and are embedded
in the integration among those systems.
E. When application lifecycles are very short, and thus the effort to share functionality among them cannot
be offset by gains from reuse.
F. When a given enterprise has dozens or hundreds of information systems for which the exposing of
functionality from those systems as
services would be an extremely complex operation.
Answer: ACE

BEA   0B0-106   0B0-106   0B0-106

NO.5 The aims of an SOA Program include: (Choose all that apply.)
A. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that functionality is delivered and deployed
for use by the entire enterprise.
B. The delivery of enterprise architecture that facilitates the sharing of functionality as services in a way
that is measurable and manageable and
meets operational goals.
C. The establishment of governance to standardize the way that enterprise information systems are
coded.
D. Providing accountability to the business for the translation of business requirements into information
technology.
E. The synthesis of business strategy and goals and the delivery cycles of projects into a roadmap for the
creation and deployment of shared
services.
F. The development of any service that is to be delivered to the enterprise.
Answer: ABDE

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