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시험 번호/코드: 250-309
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange)
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Q&A: 97 문항
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NO.1 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

Symantec pdf   250-309   250-309

NO.2 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

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NO.3 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.4 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

Symantec   250-309   250-309시험문제

NO.6 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9
for Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

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NO.12 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

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NO.15 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-097
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
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NO.1 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.6 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.8 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.9 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.11 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.12 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.13 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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NO.16 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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NO.18 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-114
시험 이름: Symantec (PGP Universal Server 3.0 Technical Assessment)
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NO.1 Clustering can be done during or after installation and setup of a PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your customer's PGP Universal Server is running in Learn Mode and they want to automatically create
external users. How could this be done?
A. By simply sending email to external users (with a no-key policy of Smart Trailer or Web Messenger).
B. By configuring Directory Synchronization to import external users? keys.
C. By enabling the Verified Directory service (so that external users can manually upload their keys).
D. It is not possible to automatically create external users in Learn Mode.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following PGP Desktop utilities has a command line interface?
A. PGP NetShare
B. PGP Zip
C. PGP Virtual Disk
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.4 The Verified Directory is required to receive encrypted mail.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 Advanced user mode for PGP NetShare is the recommended method to encrypt all files.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 The application whitelist only works if the files are stored in a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the newest standard for secure message processing?
A. PGP/MIME
B. PGP Partitioned
C. SMIME
D. RSA
Answer: A

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NO.8 ADKs are only used for Messaging.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.9 An Additional Decryption Key (or ADK):
A. Is often split into shares for security.
B. Can be used for decryption of files and emails.
C. Should only be used in situations clearly defined by an organization's security policies.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A. The file is decrypted
B. The file remains encrypted
C. The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D. If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E. It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.11 What methods can be used by Web Messengers to authenticate to an inbox?
A. LDAP, Dictionary or Passphrase
B. Token, Passphrase, or TPM
C. Passphrase, LDAP, Radius
D. Ignition key, LDAP, Radius
Answer: C

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NO.12 PGP Desktop can perform SMIME and / or PGP encryption.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.13 When Bob receives his first Web Messenger message, one of his options for securing future
messages could be "PGP Universal Satellite".
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 The WDE Disk Administrator Passphrase allows an administrator to?
A. Log into the PGP Universal Server.
B. Authenticate at BootGuard on any system in the Consumer Policy.
C. Change a user WDRT from the server.
D. Run a bypass on the user system even if it is powered down.
Answer: B

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NO.15 PGP Desktop is required to use the Out Of Mail Stream (OOMS) feature of PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.16 It is possible to prevent a folder from being PGP NetShare protected.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.17 There are several administrative levels available for logging into PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.18 Bob, an external user, has just downloaded and installed PGP Satellite from a PGP Universal Server
managing the example.com domain. Which of the following statements is true?
A. PGP Satellite will encrypt all email Bob sends to any domain.
B. PGP Satellite will only encrypt email that Bob sends to the example.com domain.
C. Bob is added to the example.com PGP Universal Server as an internal user.
D. It is now too late for Bob to change his delivery preference.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Dictionaries can be used to add users to Consumer Groups or used for Mail Policy processing, but
they cannot be used to configure a Consumer Policy.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following will cause Silent Enrollment to fail.?
A. Directory Synchronization is enabled and there are multiple directories enabled.
B. LDAP Enrollment is enabled but the Bind DN has been entered correctly.
C. Key Reconstruction is enabled.
D. The Windows username / password are different than the LDAP credentials for the user.
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-132
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 Exam)
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업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 is running out of disk space due to storing extended logs.The
administrator is required to store extended log data for more than a year.Which action should the
administrator take?
A.Lower the maximum log storage limit.
B.Increase the Messaging Gateway server threads.
C.Configure remote logging.
D.Delete messages from the queue.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Message throughput of a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner-only appliance can be reduced by
which two features? (Select two.)
A.rapid release definitions
B.real-time updates
C.DKIM signing
D.SMTP authentication
E.hourly quarantine expunging
Answer: C, D

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NO.3 A company uses multiple control centers.What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A.Configure the same seed value on each control center.
B.Configure different seed values on each control center.
C.Configure the same seed value on each scanner.
D.Configure different seed values on each scanner.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Directory Data Source function must be configured to enable end-user spam quarantine?
A.SMTP authentication
B.address resolution
C.recipient validation
D.authentication
Answer: D

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NO.5 A message released from Spam Quarantine is delivered to the intended recipient.Under the default
configuration, where is a copy of the misidentified message also sent?
A.intended recipient's manager
B.Symantec Security Response
C.Administrator@localhost
D.Admin@localhost
Answer: B

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NO.6 What happens if a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner is behind another internal messaging
gateway?
A.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners might quarantine all mail from the internal gateway MTA if
DKIM is disabled.
B.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners might identify the IP address of the internal gateway MTA as a
source of spam.
C.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners will trust all mail from the internal gateway MTA.
D.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners will grant the internal gateway MTA a Fastpass.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A.when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B.when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C.when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D.when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E.when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.8 A diagnostics package for a scanner-only appliance can be generated from the GUI in Symantec
Messaging Gateway 9.5.If the package is small (less than 5 MB), which transfer protocol type should be
used by the administrator to verify the diagnostics package before providing it to technical support for
analysis?
A.email to administrator
B.download to desktop
C.FTP
D.SCP
Answer: B

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NO.9 An employee reports that a message sent to a customer was rejected.The employee provides
sufficient information for the administrator to find the message using the Message Audit log.The employee
wants to know why that message was blocked.Which section of the Message Audit Log detail page would
provide this information?
A.Verdict
B.Message Header
C.Tracker
D.Destination
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator tests the default antivirus policies by sending a message with an encrypted
attachment.
When the administrator checks the recipient inbox, what appears?
A.The test email appears with a modified subject line.
B.A system-generated message appears concerning an unscannable attachment.
C.A pointer to the Suspect Virus Quarantine appears.
D.The email is missing due to deletion by the system.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which prerequisite must be met to take advantage of the Connection Classification and Fastpass
features?
A.Symantec Messaging Gateway must use a virtual IP address.
B.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be configured with two network interfaces.
C.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be the first SMTP hop into the network.
D.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be configured in scanner-only mode.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec Messaging
Gateway 9.5?
A.store backup on local server
B.store backup on a remote location using FTP
C.encrypt local backup
D.purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists?
(Select two.)
A.Add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains.
B.Check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group".
C.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions.
D.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions.
E.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions.
Answer: B, E

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NO.14 Where are options for backup and restore of Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 located?
A.Administration -> Version
B.Administration -> Configuration
C.Administration -> Control Center
D.Administration -> Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.15 Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 is certified for non-virtual deployment on which hardware devices?
A.Symantec 2950 series appliances
B.Symantec 3570 series appliances
C.Symantec 7100 series appliances
D.Symantec 8300 series appliances
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the default time period that a suspect virus can reside in the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.2 hours
B.4 hours
C.6 hours
D.8 hours
Answer: C

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NO.17 An administrator recently investigated the debug logs for Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 and
resolved an issue.A few days later the administrator discovers that the disk storage is filling up
quickly.What is the likely cause?
A.Real-time update level is turned up.
B.Local log level is turned up.
C.Active user data is turned up.
D.Remote log level is turned up.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A.Dynamic Data Cache
B.Directory Data Service
C.Data Directory Tool
D.LDAP Directory Service
Answer: B

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NO.19 Before performing a software update on a scanner-only appliance, which MTA operation/mode should
be chosen if there are messages in the queues?
A.Stop the MTA.
B.Accept and deliver messages normally.
C.Pause message scanning and delivery.
D.Do not accept incoming messages.
Answer: D

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NO.20 How could an administrator filter email more aggressively by adjusting the suspected spam score?
A.Raise the suspected spam score from the default to 99.
B.Lower the suspected spam score from the default to 60.
C.Lower the suspected spam score from the default to 24.
D.Raise the suspected spam score from the default to 91.
Answer: B

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NO.1 What is a difference between the Web-Auth features on the AP 530 and the Wireless Edge Services zl
Module?
A. The AP 530 does not support 802.1X for Web-Auth clients.
B. The AP 530 does not support WPA encryption for Web-Auth clients.
C. The AP 530 does not support customization of text on the Login page.
D. The AP 530 does not enable the loading of custom web pages from external servers.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which secure mobility features are available on a standalone AP 530? (Select two.)
A. Web-Auth
B. built-in firewall
C. built-in RADIUS
D. VLAN-based ACLs
E. user-based policies
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which ProCurve secure mobility solution requires the installation of a RADIUS agent on the enterprise
RADIUS server?
A. Access Point 530
B. Identity Driven Manager
C. ProCurve Mobility Manager
D. Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which feature of the Wireless Edge Services zl Module enables the reporting of excessive
authentication attempts?
A. AP detection
B. built-in firewall
C. Access Control Lists
D. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which configuration step will enable a ProCurve Radio Port to obtain the IP address of a Wireless
Module during Layer 3 adoption?
A. Configure DHCP Relay on the Wireless Module.
B. Define the Wireless Module as a RADIUS client in Windows IAS.
C. Define Option 189 on the DHCP server for the scope serving the RP.
D. Configure IP helper on the RP's default gateway to forward requests to the Wireless Module's DHCP
server.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When is the intrusion detection capability enabled on the Wireless Edge Services zl Module?
A. when routing is enabled
B. when the module is installed
C. when the first WLAN is enabled
D. when the built-in firewall is enabled
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the Guest Login feature on the AP 530?
A. enable guests to use the built-in guest account for Web-Auth
B. enable guests to register as users during the log-in process
C. enable guests to obtain certificates necessary for 802.1X authentication
D. enable guests to obtain IP addresses local to the AP during authentication
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have configured AP detection on two Radio Ports connected to a Wireless Edge Services zl
Module. Which step is necessary to enable ProCurve Manager Plus with Mobility Manager to display
information about the detected APs?
A. Configure IP addresses on the RPs.
B. Configure SNMP traps on the Wireless Module.
C. Define a detection alert in the PCM+ Events viewer.
D. Add the RPs to a detection group in Mobility Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is an advantage of implementing Layer 3 routing instead of Layer 2 forwarding on the Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. It enables termination of user VLANs at the network edge.
B. It enables wireless users to have different access than wired users.
C. It enables the application of different security policies for wired and wireless users.
D. It enables communication between wireless users without using resources of the switch hosting the
module.
Answer: A

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NO.10 At a customer site, you must configure a Switch 5400zl and Identity Driven Manager to authenticate
Sales users and place them in VLAN 48. Which steps are necessary to complete this configuration?
(Select three.)
A. Configure VLAN 48 on the Switch 5400zl.
B. Enable 802.1X authentication for all affected switch ports.
C. Assign all affected switch ports to VLAN 48 as tagged members.
D. Define VLAN 48 as the unauthorized VID for all affected switch ports.
E. Add all Sales users to the list of RADIUS clients on the authentication server.
F. Define an IDM Access Profile and Access Rule associating Sales users with VLAN 48.
Answer: ABF

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NO.11 What is an advantage of using the Wireless Module instead of the AP 530 to detect rogue APs?
A. The Wireless Module supports passive scanning as well as dedicated scanning.
B. The Wireless Module can be configured to require APs to submit 802.1X credentials.
C. The Wireless Module provides an administrative interface for identifying authorized and unauthorized
APs.
D. The Wireless Module's built-in firewall prevents users associated with unauthorized APs from
accessing network resources.
Answer: C

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NO.12 You must configure a Wireless Edge Services zl Module so that clients will be subject to router-based
ACLs based on IP address range. Which module feature enables you to support this strategy?
A. DHCP relay
B. Layer 3 mobility
C. built-in RADIUS server
D. dynamic VLAN assignment
Answer: D

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NO.13 On the Wireless Edge Services zl Module, which interfaces can be associated with a single IP ACL?
A. all VLAN interfaces and the downlink
B. all VLAN interfaces, the downlink, and the uplink
C. one VLAN interface, the downlink, and the uplink
D. all VLAN interfaces and either the downlink or the uplink
Answer: B

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NO.14 In Identity Driven Manager, what is the default setting for access control based on time of connection?
A. Access is allowed at all times.
B. Access is not permitted at any time.
C. Access is permitted during normal business hours.
D. Access is permitted at times configured during installation.
Answer: A

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NO.15 At a customer site, you must configure three ports on a Switch 2610-24-PWR to authenticate users as
part of a unified wired and wireless solution that will use Identity Driven Manager to apply access policies.
Which device's IP address do you require for this configuration?
A. RADIUS server
B. PCM+/IDM server
C. Certification Authority
D. Windows Domain Controller
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which statement describes the relationship between Identity Driven Manager and an enterprise
RADIUS server?
A. IDM acts as a graphical interface for the configuration of RADIUS policies.
B. IDM provides a RADIUS proxy server for users affected by IDM Access Rules.
C. IDM applies the RADIUS server's Remote Access Policies to authenticated users.
D. IDM enables the RADIUS server to specify VLAN assignments for authenticated users.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which circumstance requires Layer 3 adoption of a radio port by a Wireless Edge Services zl Module?
A. The RP must be part of a Layer 3 mobility domain.
B. The RP is located in a different broadcast domain than the module's downlink.
C. The RP must support users who will be assigned IP addresses in different networks.
D. The RP must obtain an IP address for enforcement of ACLs configured on the module.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is an advantage of configuring a ProCurve Radio Port for passive scanning instead of dedicated
scanning for rogue AP detection?
A. The RP can continue serving clients while scanning.
B. The RP can be assigned to a Quarantine VLAN in PCM+.
C. The RP can be configured to scan selected radio frequencies.
D. The RP can send SNMP traps to PCM+ when rogue APs are detected.
Answer: A

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NO.19 At a customer site, you have enabled and activated 802.1X authentication for ports 1-4 on a Switch
3500yl. VLAN membership of the ports is at default settings. Users connecting to the switch will
authenticate using Windows IAS and be assigned to VLANs based on policies applied by Identity Driven
Manager. You enter the following command:
3500.l(config)#aaa port-access authenticator ethernet 1-4 unauth-vid 33
What is the VLAN membership of these ports while no clients are connected?
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 33
C. VLAN assigned by IDM
D. VLAN assigned by RADIUS server
Answer: A

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NO.20 The management interface for the IDS on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module reports that the
configured threshold for excessive association attempts by a station is set to 0. What does this indicate?
A. The IDS has not detected any events of this type.
B. The IDS is not scanning for this type of event.
C. No RPs have been configured for intrusion detection.
D. No users are associated with WLANs configured for intrusion detection.
Answer: B

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NO.21 At a customer site, you have configured a Guest WLAN on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module. The
WLAN will use Web-Auth to authenticate Guest users, who will be placed in VLAN 55. What other step is
required to enable this configuration?
A. Enable IP routing for all VLANs configured on the module.
B. Configure a static route to VLAN 55 on the enterprise's routers.
C. Configure an IP interface associated with VLAN 55 on the module.
D. Add the address of the VLAN 55 default gateway to the module's Allowed List.
Answer: C

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NO.22 By default, which port or ports become members of VLAN 2100 when a Wireless Edge Services zl
Module is installed in a 5406zl switch?
A. Wireless Module uplink port
B. ports where PoE is enabled
C. Wireless Module downlink port
D. ports connected to PoE switches
Answer: C

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NO.23 When routing is enabled on a Wireless Module, which configuration is necessary on adjacent
enterprise routers?
A. a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP or OSPF
B. interfaces in all VLANs configured on the Wireless Module
C. DHCP relay for all VLANs configured on the Wireless Module
D. static routes to IP networks configured on the Wireless Module
Answer: D

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NO.24 You must configure Identity Driven Manager to control access for five user groups to a file server at a
customer site. Which IDM object must be configured to enable you to identify this server in Access Rules?
A. Location
B. Access Policy
C. Access Profile
D. Network Resource
Answer: D

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NO.25 What is the rule governing the number and type of ACLs that can be applied to a VLAN on a Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. The VLAN can support one IP ACL.
B. The VLAN can support one IP ACL or one MAC ACL.
C. The VLAN can support one IP ACL and one MAC ACL.
D. The VLAN can support all ACLs configured on the module.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which option is provided by the advanced customization feature for Web-Auth pages on the Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. the ability to customize logos and text on Web-Auth pages
B. the ability to use Web-Auth pages stored on an external web server
C. the ability to install and use customized Web-Auth pages on the module
D. the ability to display different Web-Auth pages for failed and successful authentication
Answer: C

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NO.27 What is an advantage of using Web-Auth, instead of 802.1X, for authentication of guests?
A. Web-Auth eliminates the need for data encryption.
B. Web-Auth places less load on enterprise RADIUS servers.
C. Web-Auth does not require the installation of supplicant software on client computers.
D. Web-Auth enables the authentication of devices that do not provide interfaces for users to enter
credentials.
Answer: C

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NO.28 You must configure an ACL on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module, and attach the ACL to VLAN 55.
This VLAN is associated with the Marketing WLAN on the module and does not exist on any other
infrastructure device in the customer network. When will traffic be filtered by this ACL?
A. when it arrives on VLAN 55 from a wireless client
B. only when it is forwarded from the module downlink to the module uplink
C. when it arrives from the wired network and is forwarded to VLAN 55 hosts
D. when it is routed from VLAN 55 to another VLAN configured on the module
Answer: D

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NO.29 At a customer site, you have enabled routing on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module installed in a
5406zl switch. Under what circumstance is configuration of a default route on the module unnecessary?
A. when the 5406zl is the only router adjacent to the Wireless Module
B. when RIP is configured on the router upstream from the Wireless Module
C. when VLANs configured on the Wireless Module also are configured on other routers
D. when a default gateway has already been defined on the Wireless Module to enable Layer 2
connectivity
Answer: D

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NO.30 You have configured 802.1X authentication for four ports on a Switch 2600-8-PWR. One of the ports is
connected to an AP 530 in a conference room at a customer site. To ensure users connecting through
both devices have the same access rights, you have added the switch ports to an IDM Location that
already includes the AP 530. During a test, users connecting to the AP 530 are assigned to the correct
Access Policy. Users connecting through the switch ports receive the Default Access Policy. How can you
correct this configuration?
A. Edit the Location to support 802.1X over wired devices.
B. Add the switch and the AP 530 to the same group in Mobility Manager.
C. Configure 802.1X authentication on the switch port connected to the AP.
D. Set the WLAN parameter to ANY in the IDM Access Rule for the users.
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: HP0-754
시험 이름: HP (HP OpenView Operations I (7.x) UNIX )
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Q&A: 139 문항
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NO.1 Which three of the following can be monitored by OpenView Operations agents?
Choose 3 that apply.
A. application logfiles
B. Databases processes
C. DMI events
D. MPE/iX Console Messages
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.2 Where can the OVO configuration data be stored?
A. ISAM files
B. Oracle RDBMS
C. Ingres RDBMS
D. Sybase RDBMS
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the meaning of Column U in the Message Browser?
A. unknown severity
B. unknown event type
C. unmatched condition
Answer: C

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NO.4 Within the Java GUI, how do you open a Filter Browser to only show OVO
messages from a specific node?
A. Select the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side, press the right mouse
button and select "Filter Active Message".
B. Highlight the node and then select from the menu bar View->Some. In this case, it will
automatically open the appropriate Filter Browser.
C. Select from the menu bar Show->Filtering->Modify Filter and select the appropriate
node name presented in the list box.
D. Double-click the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side and then select
"Show Active Messages" from the pop-up window.
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can an operator email messages from the message browser to the OpenView
Operations administrator?
A. Drag and drop directly from the browser to an email application.
B. Highlight the opc_adm icon and use Edit->Copy and Edit->Paste in the message
browser.
C. Run the opc_msgdump command, cut out the relevant messages from the file and
paste into an email application.
D. Save the messages into a file and mail the file or attach it to an outgoing mail
message.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Can an operator modify the criticality of a message in the ITO browser?
A. Yes, but they must first own the message.
B. Yes, but only using the JAVA GUI.
C. Yes, but only if nobody else owns the message.
D. Yes, they can perform the change regardless of the type of GUI and whether the
message is owned or not.
Answer: C

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NO.7 How can a user change a message condition?
A. An operator selects Window->Message Source Templates and selects a template in a
group, double clicks on the template and then modifies the conditions.
B. An operator selects the affected node(s) in the Managed Nodes submap, then uses the
mouse pop-up menu to get to the option Modify Conditions.
C. The administrator or a template administrator opens the window Message Source
Templates, selects a template in a group, double clicks on the template and then modifies
the conditions.
D. The various users send messages to the OpenView Operations Administrator via the
Actions ->Inform Administrator menu. The administrator changes the templates based on
the requests.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which three of the following are management aspects which are covered by
OpenView Operations? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Print Management
B. Operations Management
C. Backup Management
D. Integrated Network & System Management
E. Management by Exception
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.9 The Message Browser entries can be sorted within the Java GUI by_
A. the OVO Administrator configuring the appropriate criteria when creating/modifying
the user within the Motif GUI.
B. specifying the sorting criteria in the view browser dialog.
C. specifying the sorting criteria in the Edit -> Preferences window.
D. clicking on the appropriate column heading to change sorting sequence from
ascending to descending or vice versa.
Answer: D

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NO.10 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics on the managed node.
The amount of free disk space recommended for the database used to store these
metrics is ______Mb.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two tools can be used to test OVO pattern matching? Choose 2 that apply.
A. opcsrvtst
B. opcmomchk
C. Use the test option in the template screen of the OVO GUI.
D. opcconfig
E. opcpat
Answer: C, E

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NO.12 To correctly configure the proxy setting before calling URLs in the embedded web
browser of the Java GUI __________.
A. use the Embedded Web Browser Setting dialog box
B. do nothing. The correct flag is set by default for all platforms
C. change the flag in the file /opt/OV/www/htdocs/ito_op/embedded_web
D. do nothing if the NCSA-Apache web server is used. It is automatically installed and
configured with the OVO installation
Answer: A

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NO.13 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics and stores them. The
values of these metrics are stored______ .
A. in the Oracle database
B. on the management server in a proprietary data store
C. in an xml file on the managed node
D. in a proprietary database on the managed node
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are three ways you can open a message browser to show only messages from a
certain node? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Select the node in any ovw submap (e.g. Managed Nodes window, Node Bank, Node
Group Bank) and then select Actions->View Browser.
B. Select the node in any ovw submap and then from the menu bar select
View->Message of Selected Symbols in the Message Browser menu bar.
C. Open the Browser view setting dialog from the Message Browser menu bar by
View->Some...and enter the node name in the corresponding selection field.
D. Double-click the node in any ovw submap and then double-click the browser icon.
E. Select the node in any ovw submap and then open the Browser View setting dialog
from the Message browser menu bar by View->Some...and load the node name by
pressing "Get selected symbol".
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.15 Which of the following statements regarding history download is TRUE? Choose
one answer.
A. New filtering criteria for the history download are NOT available for selection from
the GUI.
B. You can specify the option -copy to keep the history messages in the database when
using opchistdwn.
C. You can selectively upload data from files using opchistupld+filter criteria.
D. It is NOT possible to specify exclusions (e.g. -not_node).
Answer: A

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NO.16 From the Java GUI, it is NOT possible to print_________
A. message browser contents.
B. message properties.
C. application definitions.
D. application output.
Answer: C

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NO.17 When the OVO agent is started, the embedded performance component starts
collecting metrics automatically on the managed node. What is the best way to
disable AND de-register the embedded performance component?
A. kill coda
B. opcagt -stop coda
C. opcsubagt -disable
D. opcagt -stop -id 12
Answer: C

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NO.18 All message attributes can be used as filter criteria for checking incoming messages.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. An incoming message must have the same values for all attributes that are specified in
a condition to create a match. Regarding message attributes the specified attributes are
checked as AND conditions.
B. If an attribute is NOT specified, the filter ignores this attribute in the incoming
messages and compares only the other attributes.
C. If more than one value is specified for an attribute, only one of the values must match.
The specified values within one attribute are checked as OR conditions.
D. When defining conditions for a log file encapsulator template, the user needs to
specify only the message text pattern and the message group,
Answer: D

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NO.19 The hostname for a managed node has changed. Will OVO automatically detect
this?
A. Yes, OVO internally maps the new hostname to the old hostname as stored in the
OVO database. This is because the IP address is used as a unique identifier.
B. No, if the hostname or the IP address of a managed node has been modified, this
change also needs to be made in OVO.
C. Yes, but only new messages from these hosts will be intercepted. You must change the
hostname in the Modify Node window before you distribute templates or install a new
OVO agent version on that managed node.
D. No, OVO will only detect the change after both the Management Server processes and
Managed Node processes have been stopped and restarted.
Answer: B

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NO.20 The OpenView Operations Agent collects performance metrics with the help of the
coda process. This coda process is_______.
A. the last release of the OV Performance Agent integrated into the OVO agent
B. a replacement for the OV Performance Agent that must be purchased separately
C. an add-on module that has to be installed on the top of the OVO agent
D. a component included as part of the OVO agent
Answer: D

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HP HP2-027 시험문제

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시험 번호/코드: HP2-027
시험 이름: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products)
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NO.1 An engineering drawing firm is planning to upgrade their tape backup systems, but they
are constrained by their investment in older tapes. They need systems that will preserve
their old data by reading backward two generations.
Which tape technology provides read compatibility for two prior generations? Select
TWO.
A. SDLT
B. AIT
C. LTO
D. DLT
E. SLR
Answer: C, D

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NO.2 What is important to implement when providing a non-disruptive IP telephony solution
(VoIP)?
A. Fabric Shortest Path First (FSPF)
B. Packet caching (Pcache)
C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. VLAN routing (vlanR)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which backup method provides the lowest TCO?
A. shared SCSI backup
B. local SCSI backup
C. data replication backup
D. automated centralized backup
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which advantage does fiber optic cable offer over copper cabling?
A. lower reliance on hubs and switches
B. longer distances
C. easier implementation
D. lower cost
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which HP 9000 server supports a maximum of two hard partitions?
A. rp4440-4
B. rp4440-8
C. rp7420-6
D. rp8420-32
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which legacy server platforms have high potential to migrate to the Intel Itanium server
platform? Select TWO.
A. HP 9000 servers
B. HP AlphaServers
C. HP ProLiant 300 family servers
D. HP ProLiant 900 family servers
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 Which networking security option can be used to authenticate wireless LAN
(802.11b/g/a) access?
A. VLAN
B. DMZ
C. RADIUS
D. BOOTP
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which web-based software solution enables a corporate customer to track PC (business
desktop, notebooks and workstations) assets, alerts, diagnostics and SoftPaq distribution
across an enterprise environment?
A. Altiris Deployment Server
B. HP OpenView Helpdesk software
C. HP Essentials software
D. HP Client Manager tool
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the benefit of using server virtualization technology, such as VMware, in the x86
server environment?
A. to maximize the utilization of x86 server resources
B. to enable clustering without single-point-of-failure
C. to enable failover-failback between x86 processors
D. to maximize I/O performance by sharing with multiple servers
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which application functionality benefits most from a 64-bit architecture over a 32-bit
architecture?
A. Clustered DNS Server
B. Clustered Print Spooling
C. High Performance Computing
D. Clustered AutoStore Capturing
Answer: C

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